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Posted By: John on: 10/19/2008 08:29:36 EDT
Subject: Royalties

Message Detail:
Bob, correct me if I'm wrong, please. If you were to only play songs prior to 1971 or 1972, you would not have to "pay" to play those songs?

Just chatting with another DJ and that's what he does to avoid expense. I know something happened with royalty laws, because RCA/BMG would state something about it (early '70's songs) on their audio CDs.

Thanks!

Best,
John

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